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Does anyone who is familiar with Maundy Thursday, the day during Holy Week which commemorates the last supper of the Messiah with the apostles know which part of Thursday that this took place - during the night time of the first half of Thursday, or during the daytime of the second half of Thursday?

Perhaps someone new visiting this topic may know of examples.

So, then Esther didn't need to mention days and nights because she would just have to say three days. Why do you suppose she made a point of adding them? But even if you're right about what you say, how could she go on the third day and also go after the third day?

Actually, it should be: Fast the first night and first day (the 29th) Fast the second night and second day (the 30th) Fast the third night and third day ( the 31st) - goes to the king before the day ends

That would be an issue for a different topic. Perhaps you might start one.

So, you're not counting the first daytime as one of the calendar days?

And remember, the "someone new" needs to be someone who believes the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week with a 1st day of the week resurrection, and who thinks that the "heart of the earth" is referring to the tomb, and who tries to explain the lack of a 3rd night by saying that...

Wowser, over 300 views and not one reply.

Examples which show that it was common to say that a daytime or a night time would be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night could be involved.

Esther said that she would fast for 3 days, night or day, and that after doing that, that she would go to the king. However, verse 5:1 says that she went to the king on the 3rd day. How can she go to the king on the 3rd day and at the same time go after the 3rd day?

No I don't. Perhaps someone new visiting this topic may know of examples.

Any thoughts on what that meaning might be?

Wait ,you edited out what I based my question on.

To what is "it" referring?

I think in Jewish thought that a body needed to be dead for at least 3 days to be considered legally dead. So, if that was the scribes' and Pharisees' understanding, then that might be the answer as to why 3 days and 3 nights was specified. BTW, any particular reason for adding an "s" at the...

That could very well be close to the answer.

But why did the Messiah choose 3 daytimes and 3 night times in the heart of the earth to be the sign that the scribes and Pharisees were asking Him for? Was there something significant about that particular length of time?

I don't see what that has to do with the OP. The scribes and Pharisees asked the Messiah for a sign. What do you think they wanted the sign to show or prove?

When responding to the Pharisees' request for a sign from the Messiah, why do you suppose He made the specific point that He would be in the heart of the earth for 3 days and 3 nights? Is there something meaningful about that time period?

How is it that you don't know if that was your implication?