God wills much. Thus God commands lots of things.... it does not mean the DEAD can do them. Jesus in commended, "Be perfect just like my Father in Heaven is perfect." Does Jesus commanding that therefore mandate that the dead, unregenerate, atheist THUS wills and can do that? Because if so, Jesus was entirely irrelevant, a sick joke... there's no need for grace or mercy or Jesus or the Cross or the Church, just the dead one doing what he is told to do.
God commands MUCH. And for those alive, for those WITH the Holy Spirit, for those with faith - there is much that can be done. But that's not how one attains the Holy Spirit and life. God commands "Choose life" but did I come to life (say March 23, 1987 - nine months before my birthday) BECAUSE I fulfilled God's command? Or is the Creed correct and that the Holy Spirit is the GIVER of spiritual life, is the Bible correct when it credits God with my physical life. God expresses His will..... that doesn't mean ERGO the DEAD atheist hater of God will thus do it. If that were true, we're all in the wrong faith (well, we'd have no options, ALL religions AT LEAST indicate that God at least helps us, including the first step - changing our will).
Jesus commanded DEAD Lazarus to walk out of the tomb. Did that happen because Lazarus obeyed a command - and thus Lazarus raise himself from the dead? Jesus did no miracle He just issued a command that Larzarus thus willed and could perform? Is the Bible wrong to credit Jesus with raising him when actually all impotent Jesus did was shout a command?
Now back to the subject: Is First John 2:2 (etc, etc.) correct OR is the not-yet-found verse that states that Jesus died ONLY for SOME correct?
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