I tend to prefer scripture.
As do I. I see the call to baptize in Scripture, I don't see in Scripture "but you are prohibited to baptize any under the magical age of X." And I don't see in Scripture, "but you are forbidden to do this unless the receiver has first recited The Sinner's Prayer or appropriately responded to an altar call or secured
enough Christian education or have an IQ of at least Y."
It seems to me the argument is this: "If Scripture does not specifically state a command applies to a certain group of persons, then it is forbidden to include that group." The point is, "Where does Scripture specifically state we may apply the Great Commission to those under the age of X? Where, specifically, is that stated or even exampled?" Frankly, I think the argument is backwards. And I think those making the point don't accept their own argument. And I find it a very dangerous rubric: after all, it could be used to dogmatically insist we are forbidden to love the elderly because the Great Commandment ("Love") doesn't specificallty state, "and this includes all those over the the magical age of "Y" so it would be forbidden. Or to forbid love toward African-Americans since there is no verse that specifically states, "And this includes those of the Negroid race" (and there is no example of such being loved in the Bible). I find it a bad rubric. A twisted and very inappropriate use of Scripture.
Thank you.
- Josiah
