[MENTION=43]psalms 91[/MENTION]
Define the content of BIBLE. Remember: the word "Bible" simply means "books" and simply refers to a LIBRARY. Libraries often contain different kinds of books. In many such tomes, even today, you may find notes, maps, chronolgies, commentaries, concordances, etc. If they are in a tome with the word BIBLE on the cover, are they THUS the inerrant, verbally-inspired, inscripturated words of God Himself and therefore the canon/rule/norm or faith and practice equal to say the Five Books of Moses or the Epistle to the Romans? OR are you referring to 66 books that by solid, ecumenical consensus are considered so? Does "BIBLE" include Paul's Epistle to the Leodiceans? It was IN many Bibles for over 1000 years. This is the book "Luther ripped out of the New Testament" as some Catholics still whine about (not realizing their denomination didn't mention it at Florence or Trent... although it didn't come out of Catholic tomes until the 1700's). Does it include Psalm 151? Does it include Odes? Does it include the Didache? Does it include 1 Clement or the Revelation of St. Peter, all of which were included in some Bibles?
None here denies that there are 66 books that are the inerrant, verbally-inspired, inscripturated words of God Himself and therefore the canon/rule/norm or faith and practice equal to say the Five Books of Moses or the Epistle to the Romans. But of course there are MILLIONS of other religious books out there ... some contain accurate history and sound theology, some are inspirational and informational, some are USEFUL for good things, some are quoted a LOT by Christians for many centuries, BUT (consider the question) does THAT per se mean ERGO those millions are it MUST be the inerrant, verbally-inspired, inscripturated words of God Himself and therefore the canon/rule/norm or faith and practice equal to say the Five Books of Moses or the Epistle to the Romans, OR does it simply mean there are good Christian books - informational, inspirational, helpful - that are NOT it MUST be the inerrant, verbally-inspired, inscripturated words of God Himself and therefore the canon/rule/norm or faith and practice equal to say the Five Books of Moses or the Epistle to the Romans? THAT, Bill, is the issue.
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You and I have no say in what is canon or not, neither did the ante nicene Church fathers, technically it is NOT "canon" in ones Holy Bible and technically it IS "canon" in another Christian's Holy Bible.
You seem to look at it as 'one or the other is either taking away from the Holy Bible or adding to it', I'm fine with compromising and labeling the difference as "Apocrypha" but why is it so important to you to derail this thread and debate what's canon and what's not?
Luther not only included this prayer in his translation but also in his personal prayer book..
Here's a snippet of one of his commentaries on Genesis, notice that in the end of this quote from his writings, Martin Luther says that "Manasseh in HIS prayer expresses it thus.. (He then quotes from the prayer of Manessah)"
Luther confirms just like the early Christians did -by comparing it with other scriptures (exegesis)- that this IS the prayer Manasseh prayed..
"And Cain said to the Lord: My iniquity is too great to be forgiven.
Here Moses appears to have introduced a perplexing difficulty for the linguists and the rabbis, for they torture this passage in various ways. Lyra mentions the opinions of some who explain the words as an affirmation, namely, that Cain, in his despair, said that his sin was too great to be forgiven, just as we also translate it. Augustine, too, adheres to this opinion. “Cain,” says he, “you lie. For God’s mercy is greater than the misery of all sinners.”
But the rabbis explain this as a question and in a negative sense: “My iniquity is not too great to be forgiven, is it?” But if this is the true meaning, Cain not only did not acknowledge his sin but even excused it and reproached God for inflicting a greater punishment than he deserved. In like manner, the rabbis distort the meaning of Scripture almost everywhere.
The reason for their going astray is that they are indeed familiar with the language but have no knowledge of the subject matter; that is, they are not theologians. Therefore they are compelled to twaddle and to crucify both themselves and Scripture. How is it possible to judge correctly about things that are unknown? The main thought in this passage is that Cain is being accused by his conscience. But there is no one—including not only any wicked person but even the devil himself—who would be able to endure this judgment.Thus James, in chapter two, declares that even the devils tremble in the presence of God (v. 19). And Peter, in his second epistle, chapter two, says that not even the angels, although they are greater in power and might, are able to endure the judgment which the Lord will bring upon those who blaspheme (v. 11). Manasseh, in his prayer, expresses it thus: “All men tremble before His wrathful face.” [LW 1:296]"
