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    Christian Theology - Thread: The Lord's supper; For Jews only?

    1. #1
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      The Lord's supper; For Jews only?

      This study will determine if the Lord's supper was intended as an ordinace for Israel only.
      The Lord and the twelve disciples shared in the feast of unleavened bread in the day he would be sacrificed. This feast was a memorial and an ordinance dedicated to the deliverance of Israel from Egypt. It was a feast to be observed forever.
      And the first day of unleavened bread, when they killed the passover, his disciples said unto him, Where wilt thou that we go and prepare that thou mayest eat the passover? Mark 14:12
      They participated in the meal together. Christ told the twelve that this meal represented his bodily sacrifice for them. Christ gave the twelve instructions to do this often in the future to remember his sacrifice. His death and resurrection would bring into effect the new testament.
      22:19 And he took bread, and gave thanks, and brake it, and gave unto them, saying, This is my body which is given for you: this do in remembrance of me.

      22:20 Likewise also the cup after supper, saying, This cup is the new testament in my blood, which is shed for you. Luke 22:19-20
      We will now go onto examine if the Lord's supper was identified and participated in by the Jews.
      Peter was speaking to the house of Israel in Acts 2 below.
      2:36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made the same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ. Acts 2:36
      The Jews who responded to Peter were baptized and continued in fellowship and in breaking bread.

      2:41 Then they that gladly received his word were baptized: and the same day there were added unto them about three thousand souls.

      2:42 And they continued stedfastly in the apostles' doctrine and fellowship, and in breaking of bread, and in prayers. Acts 2:41-42
      The believers met in the temple, which further supports their being Jews. Again we see them breaking bread. Could this breaking of bread be carrying out the command to shew forth the Lord's death until he comes or was it just communion, celebrating being believers in Christ?
      2:46 And they, continuing daily with one accord in the temple, and breaking bread from house to house, did eat their meat with gladness and singleness of heart, Acts 2:46
      Could the disciples be jewish ? If so, then the Jewish disciples were breaking bread. It should be noted that Paul was The Apostle of the Gentiles ( Romans 11:13 ), but he also preached to the Jews.

      20:7 And upon the first day of the week, when the disciples came together to break bread, Paul preached unto them, ready to depart on the morrow; and continued his speech until midnight. Acts 20:7
      It is evident in the passage below that the disciples are jews. They wouldn't follow sabbath law otherwise.
      12:2 But when the Pharisees saw it, they said unto him, Behold, thy disciples do that which is not lawful to do upon the sabbath day. Matthew 12:2
      The Lord Jesus Christ died to put into effect the new testament which will forgive Israel her sins and bring in his kingdom. Israel would become a blessing and light to Gentiles who would come to God thru them...the Lord's supper is to remind them of his death and future coming to set up the kingdom of heaven. This can be seen in the next two verses.
      11:26 For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord's death till he come. 1 Corinthians 11:26
      14:25 Verily I say unto you, I will drink no more of the fruit of the vine, until that day that I drink it new in the kingdom of God. Mark 14:25
      The churches of Paul's day were comprised of both Jew and Gentile believers, and Paul speaks to both, which behoves us to rightly divide.
      Now following are a few verses that seem Jewish in nature.
      In scripture was only Israel chastened?
      11:32 But when we are judged, we are chastened of the Lord, that we should not be condemned with the world. 1 Corinthians 11:32
      Chastening appears in the book written to Hebrews.
      12:6 For whom the Lord loveth he chasteneth, and scourgeth every son whom he receiveth. Hebrews 12:6
      Below he identifies his audience as being Gentiles. It can be seen that there is a distinction in the audience being adressed.
      12:2 Ye know that ye were Gentiles, carried away unto these dumb idols, even as ye were led. 1 Corinthians 12:2
      Below our fathers could only be reference to Jews and therefore, the audience, the brethren, are Jews.
      10:1 Moreover, brethren, I would not that ye should be ignorant, how that all our fathers were under the cloud, and all passed through the sea; 1 Corinthians 10:1

      Ye in verse below could not be Gentiles, it wouldn't make sense; of note is that in verse 10:1 Paul is addressing Israel, so in the passage below, ye are Jews.
      10:20 But I say, that the things which the Gentiles sacrifice, they sacrifice to devils, and not to God: and I would not that ye should have fellowship with devils. 1 Corinthians 10:20
      Fornication among you could not be Gentiles below for the same reason; there is a distinction between you and Gentiles.

      5:1 It is reported commonly that there is fornication among you, and such fornication as is not so much as named among the Gentiles, that one should have his father's wife. 1 Corinthians 5:1
      So, upon examining alot of the verses in the Corinthian epistle leads to the possibility that Paul was addressing Jewish believers only in certain passages and Gentile believers only in others. It is a possibility that the original command to observe the Lord's supper was given to Israel only.
      Participating in the Lord's supper unworthily; They would be guilty of failing to recognize that they were participating in the communion of believers. They were to aware that as Christ sacrificed himself for us they were to be mindfull of the other members of the body of Christ.
      11:27 Wherefore whosoever shall eat this bread, and drink this cup of the Lord, unworthily, shall be guilty of the body and blood of the Lord. 1 Corinthians 11:27
      Consequence of taking the Lord's supper unworthily;
      11:30 For this cause many are weak and sickly among you, and many sleep. 1 Corinthians 11:30
      The cause of weakness and sickness which led to death could be the chastening of the Lord.
      11:32 But when we are judged, we are chastened of the Lord, that we should not be condemned with the world. 1 Corinthians 11:32
      1 Corinthians 11:30 could refer to the passage below which speaks of healing in the Body as being one of the gifts.

      12:9 To another faith by the same Spirit; to another the gifts of healing by the same Spirit; 1 Corinthians 12:9
      1 Corinthians 11:30 could speak to being converted and bringing in the kingdom, in which, healing is a feature.

      13:15 For this people's heart is waxed gross, and their ears are dull of hearing, and their eyes they have closed; lest at any time they should see with their eyes and hear with their ears, and should understand with their heart, and should be converted, and I should heal them. Matthew 13:15

      The Lord's supper represents the communion of believers;

      10:16 The cup of blessing which we bless, is it not the communion of the blood of Christ? The bread which we break, is it not the communion of the body of Christ? 1 Corinthians 10:16
      My determination is that a case can be made that the Lord's supper was ordained for Israel, but the body of Christ can participate in celebrating communion because it represents the fellowship and recognition that we are all in Christ in this dispensation of grace. The new covenant that the death of Christ initiated has also made provision for the body of Christ.
      3:9 And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ: Ephesians 3:9
      12:13 For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit. 1 Corinthians 12:13

    2. #2
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      The Lord's supper; For Jews only?
      I've never heard it suggested that the Lord's supper was intended for Jews alone.

      Quote Originally Posted by Doug View Post
      This study will determine if the Lord's supper was intended as an ordinace for Israel only.
      The Lord and the twelve disciples shared in the feast of unleavened bread in the day he would be sacrificed. This feast was a memorial and an ordinance dedicated to the deliverance of Israel from Egypt. It was a feast to be observed forever.
      And the first day of unleavened bread, when they killed the passover, his disciples said unto him, Where wilt thou that we go and prepare that thou mayest eat the passover? Mark 14:12
      They participated in the meal together. Christ told the twelve that this meal represented his bodily sacrifice for them. Christ gave the twelve instructions to do this often in the future to remember his sacrifice. His death and resurrection would bring into effect the new testament.
      22:19 And he took bread, and gave thanks, and brake it, and gave unto them, saying, This is my body which is given for you: this do in remembrance of me.

      22:20 Likewise also the cup after supper, saying, This cup is the new testament in my blood, which is shed for you. Luke 22:19-20
      We will now go onto examine if the Lord's supper was identified and participated in by the Jews.
      Peter was speaking to the house of Israel in Acts 2 below.
      2:36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made the same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ. Acts 2:36
      The Jews who responded to Peter were baptized and continued in fellowship and in breaking bread.

      2:41 Then they that gladly received his word were baptized: and the same day there were added unto them about three thousand souls.

      2:42 And they continued stedfastly in the apostles' doctrine and fellowship, and in breaking of bread, and in prayers. Acts 2:41-42
      The believers met in the temple, which further supports their being Jews. Again we see them breaking bread. Could this breaking of bread be carrying out the command to shew forth the Lord's death until he comes or was it just communion, celebrating being believers in Christ?
      2:46 And they, continuing daily with one accord in the temple, and breaking bread from house to house, did eat their meat with gladness and singleness of heart, Acts 2:46
      Could the disciples be jewish ? If so, then the Jewish disciples were breaking bread. It should be noted that Paul was The Apostle of the Gentiles ( Romans 11:13 ), but he also preached to the Jews.

      20:7 And upon the first day of the week, when the disciples came together to break bread, Paul preached unto them, ready to depart on the morrow; and continued his speech until midnight. Acts 20:7
      It is evident in the passage below that the disciples are jews. They wouldn't follow sabbath law otherwise.
      12:2 But when the Pharisees saw it, they said unto him, Behold, thy disciples do that which is not lawful to do upon the sabbath day. Matthew 12:2
      The Lord Jesus Christ died to put into effect the new testament which will forgive Israel her sins and bring in his kingdom. Israel would become a blessing and light to Gentiles who would come to God thru them...the Lord's supper is to remind them of his death and future coming to set up the kingdom of heaven. This can be seen in the next two verses.
      11:26 For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord's death till he come. 1 Corinthians 11:26
      14:25 Verily I say unto you, I will drink no more of the fruit of the vine, until that day that I drink it new in the kingdom of God. Mark 14:25
      The churches of Paul's day were comprised of both Jew and Gentile believers, and Paul speaks to both, which behoves us to rightly divide.
      Now following are a few verses that seem Jewish in nature.
      In scripture was only Israel chastened?
      11:32 But when we are judged, we are chastened of the Lord, that we should not be condemned with the world. 1 Corinthians 11:32
      Chastening appears in the book written to Hebrews.
      12:6 For whom the Lord loveth he chasteneth, and scourgeth every son whom he receiveth. Hebrews 12:6
      Below he identifies his audience as being Gentiles. It can be seen that there is a distinction in the audience being adressed.
      12:2 Ye know that ye were Gentiles, carried away unto these dumb idols, even as ye were led. 1 Corinthians 12:2
      Below our fathers could only be reference to Jews and therefore, the audience, the brethren, are Jews.
      10:1 Moreover, brethren, I would not that ye should be ignorant, how that all our fathers were under the cloud, and all passed through the sea; 1 Corinthians 10:1

      Ye in verse below could not be Gentiles, it wouldn't make sense; of note is that in verse 10:1 Paul is addressing Israel, so in the passage below, ye are Jews.
      10:20 But I say, that the things which the Gentiles sacrifice, they sacrifice to devils, and not to God: and I would not that ye should have fellowship with devils. 1 Corinthians 10:20
      Fornication among you could not be Gentiles below for the same reason; there is a distinction between you and Gentiles.

      5:1 It is reported commonly that there is fornication among you, and such fornication as is not so much as named among the Gentiles, that one should have his father's wife. 1 Corinthians 5:1
      So, upon examining alot of the verses in the Corinthian epistle leads to the possibility that Paul was addressing Jewish believers only in certain passages and Gentile believers only in others. It is a possibility that the original command to observe the Lord's supper was given to Israel only.
      Participating in the Lord's supper unworthily; They would be guilty of failing to recognize that they were participating in the communion of believers. They were to aware that as Christ sacrificed himself for us they were to be mindfull of the other members of the body of Christ.
      11:27 Wherefore whosoever shall eat this bread, and drink this cup of the Lord, unworthily, shall be guilty of the body and blood of the Lord. 1 Corinthians 11:27
      Consequence of taking the Lord's supper unworthily;
      11:30 For this cause many are weak and sickly among you, and many sleep. 1 Corinthians 11:30
      The cause of weakness and sickness which led to death could be the chastening of the Lord.
      11:32 But when we are judged, we are chastened of the Lord, that we should not be condemned with the world. 1 Corinthians 11:32
      1 Corinthians 11:30 could refer to the passage below which speaks of healing in the Body as being one of the gifts.

      12:9 To another faith by the same Spirit; to another the gifts of healing by the same Spirit; 1 Corinthians 12:9
      1 Corinthians 11:30 could speak to being converted and bringing in the kingdom, in which, healing is a feature.

      13:15 For this people's heart is waxed gross, and their ears are dull of hearing, and their eyes they have closed; lest at any time they should see with their eyes and hear with their ears, and should understand with their heart, and should be converted, and I should heal them. Matthew 13:15

      The Lord's supper represents the communion of believers;

      10:16 The cup of blessing which we bless, is it not the communion of the blood of Christ? The bread which we break, is it not the communion of the body of Christ? 1 Corinthians 10:16
      My determination is that a case can be made that the Lord's supper was ordained for Israel, but the body of Christ can participate in celebrating communion because it represents the fellowship and recognition that we are all in Christ in this dispensation of grace. The new covenant that the death of Christ initiated has also made provision for the body of Christ.
      3:9 And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ: Ephesians 3:9
      12:13 For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit. 1 Corinthians 12:13
      Pope Gregory I was well known for his alms to the poor, and he gave quite generously of the riches donated to the Church by the wealthy people of Rome. Everything from money to land was given to the poor in some fashion. He made clear to his subordinates that their duty was to relieve the distress faced by the poor.

      He ordered his clergy to go out into the streets to find and care for the poor in person.

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      Nope.


      I'm well known for having the shortest posts at CH....
      We are justified by works - just not our own.

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      Having read the OP, it looks like the title should have theorized that Christianity was meant for Jews only, not just the Lords Supper.

      The first disciples were Jews, we know, but the Great Commission as recorded at the end of the Gospel of Matthew has Christ calling on his people to make converts of all nations, so I would say that there is nothing to the theory.

    5. Likes DHoffmann liked this post
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      Quote Originally Posted by Albion View Post
      Having read the OP, it looks like the title should have theorized that Christianity was meant for Jews only, not just the Lords Supper.

      The first disciples were Jews, we know, but the Great Commission as recorded at the end of the Gospel of Matthew has Christ calling on his people to make converts of all nations, so I would say that there is nothing to the theory.
      Here we go again! I apologize on behalf of all here at CH, you see...
      You'll have to forgive our friend Albion for his... weakness... of being absolutely right indeed!!
      "There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus. And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise."
      Galatians 3:28-29

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      The Lordís Supper is for people of the promise (God's chosen children). We should, however, recognize that the supper was the seder meal where Jesus changed the Passover lamb to be himself. What we do in most churches today would be nearly unrecognizable to the early church in and around Israel.

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      Last edited by DHoffmann; 08-27-2018 at 05:16 PM.

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      Quote Originally Posted by MennoSota View Post
      The Lordís Supper is for people of the promise (God's chosen children). We should, however, recognize that the supper was the seder meal where Jesus changed the Passover lamb to be himself. What we do in most churches today would be nearly unrecognizable to the early church in and around Israel.
      Saint John's gospel teaches that the Lord was already arrested and in custody when the Passover was being prepared. If saint John's gospel is accurate about it then the last supper could not be a Passover meal (a seder).
      John 13:1 Before the festival of the Passover, Jesus, knowing that his hour had come to pass from this world to the Father, having loved those who were his in the world, loved them to the end.

      John 18:28 They then led Jesus from the house of Caiaphas to the Praetorium. It was now morning. They did not go into the Praetorium themselves to avoid becoming defiled and unable to eat the Passover.

      John 18:39 But according to a custom of yours I should release one prisoner at the Passover; would you like me, then, to release for you the king of the Jews?'
      Pope Gregory I was well known for his alms to the poor, and he gave quite generously of the riches donated to the Church by the wealthy people of Rome. Everything from money to land was given to the poor in some fashion. He made clear to his subordinates that their duty was to relieve the distress faced by the poor.

      He ordered his clergy to go out into the streets to find and care for the poor in person.

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      Quote Originally Posted by MoreCoffee View Post
      Saint John's gospel teaches that the Lord was already arrested and in custody when the Passover was being prepared. If saint John's gospel is accurate about it then the last supper could not be a Passover meal (a seder).
      John 13:1 Before the festival of the Passover, Jesus, knowing that his hour had come to pass from this world to the Father, having loved those who were his in the world, loved them to the end.

      John 18:28 They then led Jesus from the house of Caiaphas to the Praetorium. It was now morning. They did not go into the Praetorium themselves to avoid becoming defiled and unable to eat the Passover.

      John 18:39 But according to a custom of yours I should release one prisoner at the Passover; would you like me, then, to release for you the king of the Jews?'
      I suppose my Jewish Christian friends could be wrong, but I believe them over you.

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      Quote Originally Posted by MennoSota View Post
      The Lord’s Supper is for people of the promise (God's chosen children). We should, however, recognize that the supper was the seder meal where Jesus changed the Passover lamb to be himself.
      In other words, it was NOT a Passover meal. That means there is no reason to think it was intended by Christ to be just for Jews.

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